graphrix said:
I'm late to the game in this thread, and I will be honest... I don't have the time to read all the links. But, after poking around the
ABI site,
I did find this article, and this point...
The first nationwide study on medical causes of bankruptcy (released June 4 by Harvard Law School, Harvard Medical School and Ohio University) found that 62.1 percent of all bankruptcies filed in 2007 were related to medical problems. This represents a 50 percent increase since 2001.
So in 2001 there were nearly twice as many BKs as 2007, but the medical reasons for BKs continued to increase. What am I missing here? Either I am missing the point, or really medical reasons are the main cause of BKs, at least for the increase in BKs.
That is what I am trying to figure out too. The study that is widely cited was performed by David Himmelstein who happens to be the intellectual contributor and supporter of Physicians for a national health program.
Our Mission: Single-Payer National Health Insurance
Himmelstein routinely advocates for the Canadian Healt Care system to be adopted in the US so I would want some type of corroboration for his numbers. In my search I have only found detractors that seem to suggest his desire to bring Canadian healthcare to the US may have had bearing on this study.
Although these numbers are widely repeated there are many detractors of the study that I have linked too. Here is a sample.
In a 2006 review (gated) of the H & W study results in Health Affairs, David Dranove and Michael L. Millenson:
Recalculate the medical bankruptcy rate using the data given in the H & W paper. They conclude that just 17 percent of the H & W sample "had medical expenditure bankruptcies," although it cannot be stated "with any degree of certainty whether medical spending was the most important cause of bankruptcy."
Explain that "four decades of studies have addressed the bankruptcy-medical spending connection" and that the results from those studies are much closer to their 17 percent estimate than to the 54.5 percent estimates of H & W.
Cite a 2002 Fay, Hurst, and White American Economic Review study, which found no statistical link between bankruptcies and health problems.
Cite a 1999 Domowitz and Sartain Journal of Finance study, which found that high medical debt raised the probability of bankruptcy for the tiny proportion of the population that had high medical debt, but that at the margin, credit cards were the largest single contribution to bankruptcy.
So if we go with the higher numbers given by Himmelstein we "could" probably say that the difference is caused by medical bankruptcies.
There is a data set we are missing though that could help. Base on Himmelsteins methodology how many Bankruptcies in Canada would now fall under the "medical bankruptcy" heading.
I have seen numbers that suggest that "Medical reasons were cited as the primary cause of bankruptcy by approximately 15 percent of bankrupt Canadian seniors (55 years of age and older)." However this study was not as generous with the term medical bankrupcty as Himmelsteins. So it is hard to determine how high this number would be if we used the same criteria.
Another Link Questioning Himmelsteins numbers
If you go to page three and read Other reasearch you may come to a different conclusion then Himmelstein.
I would think before we could draw a definitive conclusion on the different reasons we would need to take several criteria into account.
Bankruptcy laws in both countries. Where is it easier to file? What can you protect? What can you discharge and what is the amount of the discharge? If all of those factors are better in the US that may play a bigger factor in the increase then Medical Bankruptcy.
We would need the number of "Medical Bankruptcies" In Canada and the USA under one study using the same criteria. Himmelsteins criteria to what I have seen were never used in Canada.
Debt to income level prior to bankruptcy. There are other Criteria that should probably be used as well.
If we go with the lower numbers that have been presented elsewhere the difference still isn't explained.
Maybe my logic is skewed on this.