LoudRoar_IHB
New member
Considering the fact that subprime loans were created in Irvine/Newport, maybe we are creative enough to get out of this mess.
Here is my question and I hope someone who knows details can explain it. A mortgage backed security is a pool of loans, including a note and deed of trust, which is serviced by a company which also sells bonds. The bonds have different risks. Most the prospectuses state that the bonds are backed only by the STREAM of payments of the obligations, not by the underlying asset (the house). But the pool still owns the deed of trust, right? So basically, if there is a foreclosure, does that mean that servicing company forecloses and disburses the assets only to a specific class of mbs bond holders? My question is, if the mbs pool owns the note, do they not also own the mortgage?
And if they do own both the note and mortgage, and now the stream of payments is worthless, what about the actual land/property/mortgage? Clearly they will have reduced value which is evident in falling RE prices.
In other words, what if a home owner could buy the mortgage from the bank for their own house? Is that mortgage not selling for much less?
Any information would help, thanks
Here is my question and I hope someone who knows details can explain it. A mortgage backed security is a pool of loans, including a note and deed of trust, which is serviced by a company which also sells bonds. The bonds have different risks. Most the prospectuses state that the bonds are backed only by the STREAM of payments of the obligations, not by the underlying asset (the house). But the pool still owns the deed of trust, right? So basically, if there is a foreclosure, does that mean that servicing company forecloses and disburses the assets only to a specific class of mbs bond holders? My question is, if the mbs pool owns the note, do they not also own the mortgage?
And if they do own both the note and mortgage, and now the stream of payments is worthless, what about the actual land/property/mortgage? Clearly they will have reduced value which is evident in falling RE prices.
In other words, what if a home owner could buy the mortgage from the bank for their own house? Is that mortgage not selling for much less?
Any information would help, thanks