alan said:
I'm saying what IR reports in all the blogs about REO's. When the bank files NOD on the loan and goes to court to recover the asset (property) the court follows with an auction of the property to repay the bank. Since the bank is the only bidder, no money changes hands, so it is a sham transaction from the bank's perspective. As long as no one bids against the bank, which is most of the time now in these cases, the bank gets the asset (home) back. So the bank can bid whatever it wants, even just $1.
See, sham transaction, no money changes hands and there is only one party, the bank at the court.
In a real transactions, there have to be two parties, a buyer and seller and money and assets have to trade hands.
I thought everyone here understood this concept.
Well . . . not really.
When the Jones family buys a home and gets a mortgage to purchase the home, the Jones take title to the home, but the bank puts a lien on the property to secure the loan. (The mortgage is a secured loan versus something like a credit card, which is typically an unsecured loan.) As part of lending the money, the bank negotiates certain rights (like requiring the Jones to have and maintain fire insurance, among other things). One of those rights is the option for the bank to take ownership of the property in lieu of nonrepayment of the loan. In other words, the bank has rights regarding, but not ownership of, the property. When people refer to "renting from the bank" or some similar phrase, that is not a legally accurate characterization of the status of ownership.
Fast forward . . . For various and sundry reasons, the Jones don't make their April mortgage payment, and none of the payments thereafter. The bank sends (or "serves") copies of various documents as the foreclosure process unfolds. One of these documents will be the Notice of Trustee's Sale (assuming this is a nonjudicial foreclosure - and most are). The NTS will notify the Jones and the public of the time and place of the sale and the amount due the bank (unpaid principal and interest, penalties, etc.).
At the auction, if no one bids the opening amount, then the auction ends with title passing to the bank in exchange for extinguishing the lien. While no money changes hands when there is no bid, no money has to. The bank got the benefit of its bargain on the loan (although not the one it wanted). It's not a sham transaction because it was open to the public.
What Graph has noted lately is that banks are setting the opening bid amount significantly below what they are owed in an effort to not take the property into their own portfolio. The bank would love to
not take the property back, but no one else is stepping up to buy these properties even at the "discounted" amount. So it is very telling that no one is picking these up at the foreclosure sales.