garfangle_IHB
New member
With all this talk about houses defaulting shortly after a being bought, how exactly does mortgage fraud happen? Does it work like this:
A greedy home owner (Jack) conspires with a crooked appraiser (Tom) to bring in a desperate "sucker" (Rick) to buy his inflated house.
Details: Jack's (true value) $300K home is appraised by Tom for $500K. Jack finds Rick to be his home "buyer," who agrees to purchase the house at that inflated amount with a no-doc 80/20 loan. Stupid mortgage broker Knew Century finds nothing wrong with this and house is sold. A few months later Rick defaults on his house and "jingle" mails the key back to the bank. For his trouble (the credit ding), Jack pays Rick $50K. Tom is also paid $50K by Jack for his "helpful" expertise. Jack "earns" $100K on the transaction while the remaining $100K is to keep Tom and Rick's silence. The investor/holder of the junk mortgage is the party out at least $200K.
Correct?
A greedy home owner (Jack) conspires with a crooked appraiser (Tom) to bring in a desperate "sucker" (Rick) to buy his inflated house.
Details: Jack's (true value) $300K home is appraised by Tom for $500K. Jack finds Rick to be his home "buyer," who agrees to purchase the house at that inflated amount with a no-doc 80/20 loan. Stupid mortgage broker Knew Century finds nothing wrong with this and house is sold. A few months later Rick defaults on his house and "jingle" mails the key back to the bank. For his trouble (the credit ding), Jack pays Rick $50K. Tom is also paid $50K by Jack for his "helpful" expertise. Jack "earns" $100K on the transaction while the remaining $100K is to keep Tom and Rick's silence. The investor/holder of the junk mortgage is the party out at least $200K.
Correct?